without even reading all of what you’re replying to
I read what you wrote when you said...
the writer is leaving an ambiguous assumption in a mathematical notation
...and I responded by saying there's no such thing as ambiguity in Maths (and in this case it's because of The Distributive Law, and the paragraph before that was about "implicit multiplication" of which there is no such thing). I therefore have no idea what you're talking about in saying I'm replying to something I haven't read, when I quite clearly am responding to something I have read.
Are you retarded?
No, I'm a Maths teacher (hence why I know it's not ambiguous - I know The Distributive Law. In fact I teach it. You can find info about it here - contains actual Maths textbook references, unlike the original article under discussion here).